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However, this matter depends on the well-known investigation whether the forefathers and tribes had the status of Noahides or the status of Jews. Simply put, they could not exempt themselves from the stringencies of being a Noahide, but could only be stringent according to Jewish law as an additional stringency, while still retaining their Noahide status. If so, before the giving of the Torah, the invalidation of slaughter by a non-Jew would not apply. If this is the case, the question returns as to why Rashi does not hint to the matter of slaughter. | However, this matter depends on the well-known investigation whether the forefathers and tribes had the status of Noahides or the status of Jews. Simply put, they could not exempt themselves from the stringencies of being a Noahide, but could only be stringent according to Jewish law as an additional stringency, while still retaining their Noahide status. If so, before the giving of the Torah, the invalidation of slaughter by a non-Jew would not apply. If this is the case, the question returns as to why Rashi does not hint to the matter of slaughter. | ||
But it is difficult to say that the non-Jew was expert in all the laws of slaughter, especially according to the authorities who hold that the invalidation of slaughter by a non-Jew is because he is an idolater and not because he is a Noahide and not a Jew. If so, this invalidation was relevant even before the giving of the Torah. Since the Egyptians were idolaters, it would have been forbidden for the tribes to eat from their slaughter. Furthermore, the tribes could not eat from the slaughter of a non-Jew, since they did not know that Yosef was Jewish and commanded a kosher slaughter. Since they could not eat from it anyway, and it would also be forbidden for Yosef to offer it to them because of "you shall not put a stumbling block before the blind | But it is difficult to say that the non-Jew was expert in all the laws of slaughter, especially according to the authorities who hold that the invalidation of slaughter by a non-Jew is because he is an idolater and not because he is a Noahide and not a Jew. If so, this invalidation was relevant even before the giving of the Torah. Since the Egyptians were idolaters, it would have been forbidden for the tribes to eat from their slaughter. Furthermore, the tribes could not eat from the slaughter of a non-Jew, since they did not know that Yosef was Jewish and commanded a kosher slaughter. Since they could not eat from it anyway, and it would also be forbidden for Yosef to offer it to them because of "you shall not put a stumbling block before the blind" therefore there was no point in performing a kosher slaughter. | ||
In practice, it appears from the verse that the tribes did eat, and it is possible, with difficulty, to say that they ate out of fear of the kingdom. But the Rebbe is precise that the verse does not actually state that they ate, but only "and they drank and became intoxicated." | In practice, it appears from the verse that the tribes did eat, and it is possible, with difficulty, to say that they ate out of fear of the kingdom. But the Rebbe is precise that the verse does not actually state that they ate, but only "and they drank and became intoxicated." | ||